IT-Prüfungen Exam CPP Schulungsunterlagen

IT-Prüfungen Exam CPP  Schulungsunterlagen www.it-pruefungen.ch C++ Certified Professional Programmer

QUESTION NO: 1

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?

#include

#include

#include

using namespace std;

int main(){int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };

vectorv(t, t+10);

multisets1(v.begin(),v.end());

s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());

pair<multiset::iterator,multiset::iterator> range;

range = s1.equal_range(6);

while (range.first != range.second) {cout<<*range.first<<” “; range.first++;}return 0;}

A. program outputs: 6 6
B. program outputs: 5 7
C. program outputs: 5 5 6 6 7 7
D. program outputs: 5 5 7 7
E. program outputs: 1 1 6 6 5 5

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?

#include

#include

#include

using namespace std;

templatestruct Out {ostream & out;

Out(ostream & o): out(o){}void operator()(const T & val ) {out<<val<<” “;}};

struct Sequence {int start;Sequence(int start):start(start){}int operator()() {return start++ ; }};

int main() {vectorv1(10);

generate(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Sequence(1));

rotate(v1.begin(),v1.begin() + 1, v1.end() );

for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out(cout) );cout<<endl;

return 0;}

Program outputs:

A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
C. 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10
D. 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?

#include

#include

#include

#include

#include

#include

using namespace std;

class B { int val;

public:

B(int v=0):val(v){}

int getV() const {return val;}

operator int() const { return val; };};

templatestruct Out {

ostream & out;

Out(ostream & o): out(o){}

void operator() (const T & val ) {out<<setw(3)<<hex<

int main () {

int t[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};

fstream f(“test.out”, ios::trunc|ios::out);

list l(t, t+10);

for_each(l.begin(), l.end(), Out(f));

f.close();

f.open(“test.out”);

for( ; f.good() ; ) {

B i;

f>>i;

cout<<i<<” “;

}

f.close();

return 0;}

A. file test.out will be opened writing
B. file test.out will be truncated
C. file test.out will be opened for reading
D. compilation error
E. program will display sequence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Answer: D

CPP Prüfungsfragen, CPP Examensfragen C++ Certified Professional Programmer (ICND2 v3.0) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 4

What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the code below, assuming that you enter the following sequence: one two three?

#include

#include

using namespace std;

int main ()
{

string a;

cin>>a;

cout<<a<<endl;

return 0;}

Program will output:

A. one
B. one two three
C. runtime exception
D. compilation error
E. the result is unspecified

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?

#include

#include

#include

#include

#include

using namespace std;

int main() {

int t[] = { 3, 4, 2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 1, 2, 0 };

vectorv(t, t + 10);

multimapm;

for (vector::iterator i = v.begin(); i != v.end(); i++) {

stringstream s;s << *i << *i;

m.insert(pair(*i, s.str()));

}

pair<multimap::iterator, multimap::iterator> range;

range = m.equal_range(2);

for (multimap::iterator i = range.first; i != range.second; i++) {

cout << i?>first << ” “;

}

return 0;

}

The output will be:

A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 1 3
D. 2
E. 0 2

Answer: A

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial CPP deutsch C++ Certified Professional Programmer www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 6

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?

#include

#include

#include

using namespace std;

class B { int val;

public:

B(int v):val(v){}

int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val>v.val;} };

ostream & operator <

templatestruct Out {

ostream & out;

Out(ostream & o): out(o){}

void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };

int main() {

B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};

B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};

vector v1(10,0);

sort(t1, t1+5);

sort(t2, t2+5);

set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());

for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out(cout));cout<<endl;

return 0;

}

Program outputs:

A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 5 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Answer: D

Prüfungsvorbereitung Exam CPA Studienmaterialien

Prüfungsvorbereitung Exam CPA Studienmaterialien C++ Certified Associate Programmer www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 1
What will the variable “age” be in class B?
class A {
int x;
protected:
int y;
public:
int age;
A () { age=5; };
};
class B : public A {
string name;
public:
B () { name=”Bob”; };
void Print() {
cout << name << age;
}
};

A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. None of these

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include
#include
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re, im;
public:
complex() : re(1),im(0.4) {}
complex operator?(complex &t);
void Print() { cout << re << ” ” << im; } }; complex complex::operator? (complex &t){ complex temp; temp.re = this?>re ? t.re;
temp.im = this?>im ? t.im;
return temp;
}
int main(){
complex c1,c2,c3;
c3 = c1 ? c2;
c3.Print();
}

A. It prints: 1 0.4
B. It prints: 2 0.8
C. It prints: 0 0
D. It prints: 1 0.8

Answer: C

IT-Prüfungen CPA C++ Certified Associate Programmer www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 3
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re;
double im;
public:
complex() : re(0),im(0) {}
complex(double x) { re=x,im=x;};
complex(double x,double y) { re=x,im=y;}
void print() { cout << re << ” ” << im;}
};
int main(){
complex c1;
c1 = 3.0;
c1.print();
return 0;
}

A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints: 1 1
C. It prints: 3 3
D. Compilation error

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include
using namespace std;
void fun(int);
int main()
{
int a=0;
fun(a);
return 0;
}
void fun(int n)
{
if(n < 2)
{
fun(++n);
cout << n;
}
}

A. It prints: 21
B. It prints: 012
C. It prints: 0
D. None of these

Answer: A

CPA Prüfungsfragen, CPA Examensfragen C++ Certified Associate Programmer (ICND2 v3.0) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 5
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include
using namespace std;
int s(int n);
int main()
{
int a;
a = 3;
cout << s(a);
return 0;
}
int s(int n)
{
if(n == 0) return 1;
return s(n?1)*n;
}

A. It prints: 4
B. It prints: 6
C. It prints: 3
D. It prints: 0

Answer: B

Prüfung Exam study guide EN0-001 Testfragen

Prüfung Exam study guide EN0-001 Testfragen ARM Accredited engineer www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 1
What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?

A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?

A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct about the values stored in R15?

A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined

Answer: B

EN0-001 Prüfungsfragen, EN0-001 Examensfragen ARM Accredited engineer (ICND2 v3.0) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 4
A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options is a possible explanation?

A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the ARM EABI requires that the:

A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.

Answer: B

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial EN0-001 deutsch ARM Accredited engineer www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 6
In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management Unit (MMU)?

A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR

Answer: B

Prüfungsvorbereitung Exam PMI-002 Prüfungsfragen

Prüfungsvorbereitung Exam PMI-002 Prüfungsfragen www.it-pruefungen.ch Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification (ICND2 v3.0)

QUESTION NO: 1
A contract cannot contain _____________.

A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables

QUESTION NO: 3
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn’t have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?

A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment

Answer: B

Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.

QUESTION NO: 4
______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan

Answer: D

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial PMI-002 deutsch Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?

A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits

Answer: A

Explanation:
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence.

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate

Answer: A

Explanation:
The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to +75 percent.

IT-Prüfungen PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 7
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management

Answer: A

Prüfungsvorbereitung übungstest Exam PMI-001 Prüfungsfragen

www.it-pruefungen.ch Prüfungsvorbereitung übungstest Exam PMI-001 Prüfungsfragen Project Management Professional v5 (ICND2 v3.0)

Q1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Answer: C

Q2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Answer: C

Q3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

Q4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences

Answer: B

Q5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Answer: B

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial PMI-001 deutsch Project Management Professional v5 www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques

Answer: D

Q7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Answer: A

Q8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements

Answer: C

Q9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D

IT-Prüfungen PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.

Answer: A

Q11
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Answer: B

Prüfungsvorbereitung übungstest PgMP Fragenkatalog

Prüfungsvorbereitung übungstest PgMP Fragenkatalog Program Management Professional (PgMP) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 1

Your program has 121 stakeholders that you’ll need to communicate with. Your communications management plan defines how the communication should happen, what should be communicated, and the expected modality of the communications. You’ll also need which one of the following as an input to the information distribution process in your program?

A. Change requests
B. Earned value management results
C. Stakeholder analysis plan
D. Performance reports

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

What is the formula to determine earned value (EV) for a program?

A. Percent complete times percent remaining in the program
B. Percent completes time the program cost estimate
C. Percent complete times the program budget at completion
D. Percent complete times the program cost of labor and materials

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

Olive is the program manager for her organization. She has created a request for proposal for a large portion of her program. In this work to be procured she has set several requirements for the vendors to participate. The chief among these requirements is a vendor must have at least four licensed electricians in his team. This requirement for four licensed electricians is an example of which one of the following terms?

A. Screening system
B. Scoring model
C. Vendor analysis requirements
D. Evaluation criteria

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

You are the program manager for your organization. Management has asked you to create a document that will capture the stakeholders concerns, perceived threats, and specific objectives about the program and its projects. What document is management asking you to create in this instance?

A. Requirements document
B. Project charter
C. Business case
D. Scope statement

Answer: D

IT-Prüfungen PgMP Program Management Professional (PgMP) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 5

You are the program manager of the NHQ Program. You are working with your program team to ensure that the work in the program is done accurately and according to scope. You are also reviewing the team inspection process that will need to be done to ensure that the work is being done according to the scope. If the work is found to be defective it will need to be corrected before the program customers can inspect the work. What process are you completing to ensure that the work is done accordingly to scope?

A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Quality assurance
D. Planning

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6

Your company and a competing company have created a teaming agreement for an opportunity. Through this team agreement you and your competitor can complete a major program for a client. This is, technically, a risk response for both organizations. What type of risk response are you dealing with in this instance?

A. Teaming
B. Exploiting
C. Accepting
D. Sharing

Answer: D

PgMP Prüfungsfragen Program Management Professional (PgMP) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 7

A project manager in your program has estimated the cost of a program to be $145,000. As the project manager’s project comes close to completion, the project manager realizes that he has still $27,876 left in his project budget. He decides to add some additional features to the project’s deliverables in an effort to use the remaining budget. These additions will add value to the project and the project customer is likely to enjoy these new features. This is an example of what term?

A. Gold plating
B. Errors and omissions
C. Expert judgment by the project manager
D. Value added change

Answer: A

Prüfungsvorbereitung Prüfungsfragen PMI-SP übungstest

Prüfungsvorbereitung Prüfungsfragen PMI-SP übungstest PMI Scheduling Professional (ICND2 v3.0) www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q1
CORRECT TEXT

Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the .
__________

Answer: Schedule.

Q2
Once the project’s WBS has been created what process may happen next?

A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities

Answer: B

Explanation:
The define activities process is the process that may begin once the project’s WBS has been completed and approved. It is possible, in some projects, to complete the WBS and the activity list at the same time.
Answer option D is incorrect. Sequencing the activities cannot happen until the activity list has been created.
Answer option A is incorrect. Estimating activity resources is dependent on the activity list, so this choice is not valid.
Answer option C is incorrect. Estimate activity durations are dependent on the activity list, so this choice is not valid.

Q3
Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Precedence Diagramming Method uses both predecessors and successors as nodes in the project network diagram. The PDM approach is the most common network diagram approach used.
Answer option C is incorrect. Dependency determination identifies the order of the project work. Answer option B is incorrect. The schedule network template is a tool that uses a previous project network diagram as a base for the current project network diagram. Answer option D is incorrect. Activity on the node places activities on circles within a network diagram. It is an example of the precedence diagramming method.

Q4
You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you normally use to distribute reports?

A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique

Answer: A

Studienmaterial PMI-SP deutsch PMI Scheduling Professional www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q5
Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?

A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope. It does not add any additional labor but it can introduce project risks. Answer option D is incorrect. Removing things from the project scope can reduce the project duration, but it will not satisfy the requirements the stakeholders have identified. Answer option A is incorrect. Resource leveling can actually increase the project duration. Answer option B is incorrect. Crashing can reduce the project duration but it increases the labor expense, something the stakeholders won’t approve.

Q6
The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a. The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates

Answer: D

IT-Prüfungen PMI-SP PMI Scheduling Professional www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q7
You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?

A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion

Answer: A

PMI-200 Prüfungsvorbereitung

PMI-200 Prüfungsvorbereitung deutsch PMI-Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION 1
Retrospectives provide an opportunity for the team to:

A. Reflect at the end of every iteration and identify improvements that will increase the quality of the product.
B. Participate in a mandatory meeting to share status updates across the team and to ensure that everyone is on track.
C. Understand from the management if the project is achieving the Scope, Quality, Cost, and Schedule goals.
D. Set goals at the beginning of the iteration and identify requirements that can be delivered in that iteration.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When interacting with team members, the Agile project manager should:

A. Ask team members to do things by phrasing the statement as a request rather than as a demand.
B. Ignore team member input and emotions when important decisions have to be made.
C. Proceed cautiously when requesting team members to do something likely to make them unhappy.
D. Disagree with the team based on the merit of the issue without considering how the team is feeling.

Answer: A

IT-Prüfungen PMI-200 PMI-Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam https://www.it-pruefungen.de/PMI-200.htm

QUESTION 3
An organization adopts Agile practices and implements an incremental delivery strategy. If implemented correctly, the company should recognize improved:

A. procurement processes by requiring vendors to ship materials as needed.
B. project cost management by making incremental payments on contracts.
C. customer satisfaction by specifying project shipping dates in the contract.
D. project Return on Investment (ROI) by releasing individual features to market.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Based on the following figure, during Iteration 5, there was an increase in story point value (shown on the graph); however, the team completed all of the work it promised to deliver in the iteration and existing estimates were not changed. From this information, one can infer that:

A. Work was removed from the Product Backlog.
B. Work was added to the Product Backlog.
C. The team’s velocity increased.
D. The team’s velocity decreased.

Answer: B

PMI-200 Prüfungsfragen PMI-Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION 5
What is used to provide a simple medium for gathering basic information about stories, recording high-level requirements, developing work estimates, and defining acceptance tests?

A. Story card
B. Burn down chart
C. Retrospective
D. Storyboard

Answer: A

PMI-100 IT-Prüfung, PMI-100 zertifizierung

PMI-100 IT-Prüfung, PMI-100 zertifizierung Certified Associate in Project Management(CAPM) www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q1
Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?

A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment

Answer: C

Q2
Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as “projects” and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation?

A. Because each individual order is a “temporary endeavor,” each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management.

Answer: C

PMI-100 Prüfungsfragen, PMI-100 Examensfragen Certified Associate in Project Management(CAPM) (ICND2 v3.0)  https://www.it-pruefungen.de/PMI-100.htm

Q3
A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with aggressive timelines. The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:

A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and -
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.

Answer: C

Q4
All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:

A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.

Answer: A

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial PMI-100 deutsch Certified Associate in Project Management(CAPM) www.it-pruefungen.ch

Q5
A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:

A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.

Answer: C

EX0-104 Prüfungsfragen

EX0-104 Prüfungsfragen, EX0-104 Examensfragen TMap Next Foundation (ICND2 v3.0) www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 1
See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests

Answer: B

Prüfungsvorbereitung Studienmaterial EX0-104 deutsch TMap Next Foundation  https://www.it-pruefungen.de/EX0-104.htm

QUESTION NO: 3
Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested

Answer: A

IT-Prüfungen EX0-104 TMap Next Foundation www.it-pruefungen.ch

QUESTION NO: 5
What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy

Answer: C